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Joint Admission Test For M.Sc JAM 2016 Question Paper : IIT Bombay

Organisation : Indian Institute of Technology Bombay
Entrance Exam : JAM 2016 Joint Admission Test For M.Sc
Facility : Question Paper

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IITB Question Paper

BL: Biological Sciences
Duration: 180 minutes
Maximum Marks: 100

Related : IIT Bombay JAM 2016 Frequently Asked Questions Joint Admission Test For M.Sc :

Read the following instructions carefully. :
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and Password provided to you. Kindly go through the various coloured symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the Question Paper button in the screen.

3. This test paper has a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire question paper is divided into three sections, A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are of different types.

4. Section – A contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. This section has 30 Questions and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each.

5. Section – B contains Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s) that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she selects all the correct choices only and no wrong choices. This section has 10 Questions and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks.

6. Section – C contains Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions. For these NAT type questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual numerical keypad on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions. This section has 20 Questions and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.20 carry 2 marks each.

7. Depending upon the JAM test paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

8. The computer allotted to you at the examination centre runs specialized software that permits only one choice to be selected as answer for multiple choice questions using a mouse, one or more than one choices to be selected as answer for multiple select questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual numeric keypad and mouse.

9. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

10. Multiple choice questions (Section-A) will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE choice is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (?) placed before the choice.

11. Multiple select questions (Section-B) will also have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE choice(s) is /are the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the checkbox (?) placed before the choices for each of the selected choice(s).

12. For numerical answer type questions (Section-C), each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be entered by using the mouse and the virtual numerical keypad that appears on the monitor.

13. In all questions, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section – A (MCQ), wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. In Section – B (MSQ), there is NO NEGATIVE and NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in Section – C (NAT) as well.

14. Non-programmable calculators are allowed but sharing of calculators is not allowed.

15. Mobile phones, electronic gadgets other than calculators, charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

16. You can use the scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The scribble pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:
“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

Q. 1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 In the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin, a plot of the fractional saturation of hemoglobin versus the partial pressure of oxygen can best be described as
(A) hyperbolic
(B) sigmoidal
(C) linear with a negative slope
(D) linear with a positive slope

Q.2 A polypeptide chain is made up of 101 amino acid residues. The polypeptide has 200 bonds about which rotation can occur. Assume that three orientations are possible about each of these bonds. Based on these assumptions, how many random coil conformations are possible for the polypeptide chain?
(A) 3200 (B) 2003 (C) 101 x 3200 (D) 101 x2003

Q.3 Which of the following acids can be used as one of the components in a buffer?
(A) Nitric acid (B) Sulfuric acid (C) Acetic acid (D) Hydrochloric acid

Q.4 The bacteria that require “specialized nutrients for growth”, which can be difficult to meet in the laboratory, are called
(A) facultative (B) obligate (C) fastidious (D) non-fermentor

Q.5 During urine formation, reabsorption of glucose and amino acids occurs from the glomerular filtrate in the “P” part of the nephron by the “Q” process. Choose the correct combination of P and Q.
(A) P – distal convoluted tubule Q – primary active transport
(B) P – ascending loop of Henle Q – secondary active transport
(C) P – proximal convoluted tubule Q – secondary active transport
(D) P – descending loop of Henle Q – passive diffusion

Q.6 Monoglycerides and long chain fatty acids are absorbed in the intestine. How are these molecules transported to the circulating capillary blood?
(A) In the form of chylomicrons through lymphatic duct
(B) Direct and facilitated diffusion
(C) Primary active transport
(D) Secondary active transport via a carrier protein

Q.7 An individual’s HLA haplotype is
(A) one allele at each MHC Class I locus
(B) the individual’s Class I antigen type
(C) one allele at each MHC Class II locus
(D) the individual’s complete set of MHC alleles

Q.8 Biomedical importance of specialized transduction in bacteria is due to the
(A) acquisition of Hfr plasmid
(B) transfer of genes for toxin production
(C) transfer of genes for capsule formation
(D) incorporation of jumping genes

Q.9 Which of the following pairs of cellular organelles is involved in the energy generation as well as metabolite production in a typical eukaryotic cell?
(A) Chloroplast and Lysosome
(B) Mitochondrion and Golgi body
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum and Mitochondrion
(D) Mitochondrion and Chloroplast

Q.10 The “symplast pathway” of transport in a typical plant system does NOT involve
(A) plasmodesmata
(B) transport proteins in plasma membrane
(C) cell wall and intercellular space
(D) cytoplasm

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